http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1988/50/schedule/2
I'd never even heard of this notice, but was discussing rental with a colleague today who is also a landlord and who said that his mortgage company insist that he serves one covering both grounds 1 & 2 of schedule 2 before a tenancy starts. Why would they do this, by which I mean what does it achieve that the more commonly understood section 21 would not?
I'd never even heard of this notice, but was discussing rental with a colleague today who is also a landlord and who said that his mortgage company insist that he serves one covering both grounds 1 & 2 of schedule 2 before a tenancy starts. Why would they do this, by which I mean what does it achieve that the more commonly understood section 21 would not?