I've decided that I need to sue my commercial tenant for considerable rent arrears.
On checking the lease I notice that he has not signed it on behalf of any limited company he owns but just as an individual.
Does this mean that when (if) I win my case and an order is made against him that I would be able to have bailiffs distrain on his personal property (such as his home and goods therein or the goods in other businesses he owns.)
I hope I've used the right terms here I'm not really au fait with all the commercial lingo.
On checking the lease I notice that he has not signed it on behalf of any limited company he owns but just as an individual.
Does this mean that when (if) I win my case and an order is made against him that I would be able to have bailiffs distrain on his personal property (such as his home and goods therein or the goods in other businesses he owns.)
I hope I've used the right terms here I'm not really au fait with all the commercial lingo.