Hi,
I suspect my landlord is not on a buy-to-let mortgage and is consequently in breach of his Mortgage Terms and Conditions. As a tenant I'm curious as to how this affects the validity of my Tenancy Agreement if the landlord is indeed in breach of his Mortgage terms.
I'm under the impression that if the property owner is renting a property and consequently breaching their Mortgage terms that any contractual document relating to renting the property is invalidated? Obviously, I don't know much about this which is why i'm seeking advice here.
Coincidentally, breaking the tenancy agreement wouldn't necessarily be a bad thing.
As an additional note - the only reason I feel the mortgage type is wrong is because I am receiving post for the landlord in the rented property. I do not believe this is to be expected when you're on a buy-to-let mortgage.
I suspect my landlord is not on a buy-to-let mortgage and is consequently in breach of his Mortgage Terms and Conditions. As a tenant I'm curious as to how this affects the validity of my Tenancy Agreement if the landlord is indeed in breach of his Mortgage terms.
I'm under the impression that if the property owner is renting a property and consequently breaching their Mortgage terms that any contractual document relating to renting the property is invalidated? Obviously, I don't know much about this which is why i'm seeking advice here.
Coincidentally, breaking the tenancy agreement wouldn't necessarily be a bad thing.
As an additional note - the only reason I feel the mortgage type is wrong is because I am receiving post for the landlord in the rented property. I do not believe this is to be expected when you're on a buy-to-let mortgage.